Saturday, November 24, 2018

Pi and future plans


In future I shall be working only on (1+0.000041206)^n.
Got it completely. Used Chudnovsky factors for An+B/C. And 1/pi to possibly trillions of places. So jealousy and measuring behaviour are true.
Thanks Chudnovsky brothers. Great relief !!
The above is the closest I could get with my own applied integers.

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7 comments:

  1. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 24, 2018 at 6:19 AM

    I believe in measuring behaviour.
    I believe in becoming extroverted.
    The above two gets me 1 by pi to 5 places.
    How do we get ahead?

    ReplyDelete
  2. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 24, 2018 at 6:21 AM

    I wrote about treating tongue as a simple machine in my other blog to talk better.
    Can simple machine philosophy be used to get higher places of 1 by pi?
    I think so.

    ReplyDelete
  3. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 24, 2018 at 6:25 AM

    What is a simple machine? In mathematical terms?
    You seem to get 100 times the work. But you spend only a little more energy.
    So 1.001 is a simple machine in mathematical terms.
    If we do (1 x n +1)/(100 ^ n) we get 1.002 after two iterations.

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  4. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 24, 2018 at 7:03 AM

    So (A x k + B)/(C ^k) is a subset of formula for pi.
    So
    1. (n!)/((n!)^n). Jealousy. Extrovertedness.
    2. comb(2n, n). Doubling. Measuring behavior.
    3. ((A x k)+B)/(C^k). Simple machine.
    The above three together handled adequately in mathematical terms will give 1/pi.

    ReplyDelete
  5. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 25, 2018 at 7:11 AM

    Wow!! Made it. 1 by pi to trillions of places. And fast. Methods used are
    1. (n!)/((n!)^n). Extrovertedness. Jealousy.
    2. comb(2n,n). Measuring behavior. Doubling.
    3. Chudnovsky factors for an+b/c. Simple machine.
    One of the best days in my life.
    Thanks Chudnovsky brothers.

    ReplyDelete
  6. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 26, 2018 at 11:25 PM

    Now when I say simple machine say 1+(1/100)+ (1/10000) type expression is thought out.
    Maybe 1/(100^n). Or 1/(C^n). How does An+B arise?
    This is because pi does not have repetitions. It cannot be 1.00100001 sorts. Or for that matter 47.0047000047 etc.
    Hence, An+B/(C^n) is more suitable. Why not A(n^2)+B)/(C^n)? Even here there is a chance of 47.0047000047 sorts as both the numerator and the denominator has to the power terms.
    So, An+B/(C^n) is the most suitable.
    And because we need highly erratic numbers A,B,C has to be Heegner numbers based.

    ReplyDelete
  7. Kirtivasan GanesanNovember 26, 2018 at 11:27 PM

    This finishes according to my knowledge.

    ReplyDelete